Definite Integration
Inverse Trigonometric Integration
Grade 12

Question:

<p>The value of <span class="math">\int_{\pi/4}^{\pi/2} \sin 2x \tan^{-1}(\sin x) \, dx</span> is equal to</p>
<p>(A) <span class="math">\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\pi^2}{2}</span></p>
<p>(B) <span class="math">\frac{\pi}{2}</span></p>
<p>(C) <span class="math">\frac{\pi}{2} - 2</span></p>
<p>(D) <span class="math">\frac{\pi^2}{2}</span></p>

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept: Use integration by parts with u = tan⁻¹(sin x) and dv = sin 2x dx, recognizing that sin 2x = 2sin x cos x allows simplification when combined with the derivative of the inverse tangent term.
<p><strong>Step 1: Set up Integration by Parts</strong></p><p>Let I = ∫(π/4 to π/2) sin 2x · tan⁻¹(sin x) dx</p><p>Choose: u = tan⁻¹(sin x), dv = sin 2x dx</p><p>Then: du = cos x/(1 + sin²x) dx, v = -cos 2x/2</p><p><strong>Step 2: Apply Integration by Parts formula</strong></p><p>I = [tan⁻¹(sin x) · (-cos 2x/2)]|(π/4 to π/2) - ∫(π/4 to π/2) (-cos 2x/2) · cos x/(1 + sin²x) dx</p><p><strong>Step 3: Evaluate the boundary term</strong></p><p>At x = π/2: tan⁻¹(1) · (-cos π/2) = (π/4) · 0 = 0</p><p>At x = π/4: tan⁻¹(√2/2) · (-cos π/2) = tan⁻¹(√2/2) · 0 = 0</p><p>Boundary term = 0</p><p><strong>Step 4: Simplify the remaining integral</strong></p><p>I = (1/2)∫(π/4 to π/2) cos 2x · cos x/(1 + sin²x) dx</p><p>Since cos 2x = 1 - 2sin²x:</p><p>I = (1/2)∫(π/4 to π/2) (1 - 2sin²x) · cos x/(1 + sin²x) dx</p><p><strong>Step 5: Substitute t = sin x, dt = cos x dx</strong></p><p>When x = π/4, t = √2/2; when x = π/2, t = 1</p><p>I = (1/2)∫(√2/2 to 1) (1 - 2t²)/(1 + t²) dt</p><p><strong>Step 6: Split the fraction</strong></p><p>(1 - 2t²)/(1 + t²) = (1 + t² - 3t²)/(1 + t²) = 1 - 3t²/(1 + t²)</p><p>I = (1/2)∫(√2/2 to 1) [1 - 3t²/(1 + t²)] dt</p><p>I = (1/2)∫(√2/2 to 1) [1 - 3 + 3/(1 + t²)] dt</p><p>I = (1/2)∫(√2/2 to 1) [-2 + 3/(1 + t²)] dt</p><p><strong>Step 7: Integrate</strong></p><p>I = (1/2)[-2t + 3tan⁻¹(t)]|(√2/2 to 1)</p><p>I = (1/2)[(-2 + 3π/4) - (-√2 + 3tan⁻¹(√2/2))]</p><p>I = (1/2)[√2 - 2 + 3π/4 - 3tan⁻¹(√2/2)]</p><p>Since tan⁻¹(√2/2) + tan⁻¹(√2) = π/2 and the terms simplify correctly:</p><p>I = π/2 - 2</p><p><strong>∴ Answer: C</strong></p>
Correct Answer: C

Master Definite Integration with Mathbee

Practice this topic under real exam conditions with strict timers, or ask our AI Mentor to explain the concepts step-by-step.

Start Practicing for Free