<p>Let a random variable \(X\) have a binomial distribution with mean 8 and variance 4. If \(P(X \leq 2) = k/2^{16}\), then \(k\) is equal to __________.</p>
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept: For binomial distribution, mean = np and variance = np(1-p). Use these two equations to find n and p, then calculate P(X ≤ 2) using the binomial probability formula.
Step 1: Determine the parameters $n$ and $p$ of the binomial distribution.
For a binomial distribution, the mean is given by $np$ and the variance by $np(1-p)$.
We are given:
$$np = 8$$
$$np(1-p) = 4$$
Divide the variance by the mean:
$$\frac{np(1-p)}{np} = \frac{4}{8}$$
$$1-p = \frac{1}{2}$$
$$p = \frac{1}{2}$$
Substitute $p = 1/2$ into the mean equation:
$$n\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) = 8$$
$$n = 16$$
Thus, the random variable $X$ follows a binomial distribution with parameters $n=16$ and $p=1/2$.
Step 2: Calculate the probabilities $P(X=0)$, $P(X=1)$, and $P(X=2)$.
The probability mass function for a binomial distribution is $P(X=x) = \binom{n}{x} p^x (1-p)^{n-x}$.
Given $n=16$ and $p=1/2$, we have $1-p=1/2$. So, $P(X=x) = \binom{16}{x} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^x \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{16-x} = \binom{16}{x} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{16}$.
$$P(X=0) = \binom{16}{0} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{16} = 1 \cdot \frac{1}{2^{16}}$$
$$P(X=1) = \binom{16}{1} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{16} = 16 \cdot \frac{1}{2^{16}}$$
$$P(X=2) = \binom{16}{2} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{16} = \frac{16 \times 15}{2 \times 1} \cdot \frac{1}{2^{16}} = 120 \cdot \frac{1}{2^{16}}$$
Step 3: Sum the probabilities to find $P(X \leq 2)$ and determine $k$.
$$P(X \leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=2)$$
$$P(X \leq 2) = \frac{1}{2^{16}} + \frac{16}{2^{16}} + \frac{120}{2^{16}}$$
$$P(X \leq 2) = \frac{1 + 16 + 120}{2^{16}}$$
$$P(X \leq 2) = \frac{137}{2^{16}}$$
We are given that $P(X \leq 2) = k/2^{16}$.
By comparing the two expressions for $P(X \leq 2)$, we find:
$$k = 137$$
Correct Answer: 17