Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept: Let $y = (\sin x)^x$. Then $\ln y = x \ln(\sin x)$. As $x \to 0^+$: $x \ln(\sin x) \approx x \ln x \to 0$ (since $x \ln x \to 0$). So $\ln y \to 0$ and $y \to e^0 = 1$.
The detailed step-by-step mathematical proof is available inside the Mathbee app workspace.
Correct Answer: (2)