Let <span class="math-inline">\(f : \mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{15}{2}\} \to \mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{1}{2}\}\)</span> be defined by <span class="math-inline">\(f(x)=\frac{x+10}{2x+15}\)</span> then <span class="math-inline">\(f(x)\)</span> is?
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept: To determine if a function is one-one and onto, we must check if it's injective (different inputs give different outputs) and surjective (every element in the codomain has a preimage). For rational functions, finding the inverse function is the most efficient method.
Step 1: Check if $f$ is one-one (injective)
Assume $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$ for $x_1, x_2 \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{15}{2}\}$.
$$ \frac{x_1+10}{2x_1+15} = \frac{x_2+10}{2x_2+15} $$
Cross-multiplying yields:
$$ (x_1+10)(2x_2+15) = (x_2+10)(2x_1+15) $$
Expanding both sides:
$$ 2x_1x_2 + 15x_1 + 20x_2 + 150 = 2x_1x_2 + 15x_2 + 20x_1 + 150 $$
Subtracting $2x_1x_2 + 150$ from both sides:
$$ 15x_1 + 20x_2 = 15x_2 + 20x_1 $$
Rearranging terms:
$$ 20x_2 - 15x_2 = 20x_1 - 15x_1 $$
$$ 5x_2 = 5x_1 $$
$$ x_2 = x_1 $$
Since $f(x_1) = f(x_2)$ implies $x_1 = x_2$, the function $f$ is one-one.
Step 2: Check if $f$ is onto (surjective)
To determine if $f$ is onto, we need to check if for every $y$ in the codomain $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{1}{2}\}$, there exists an $x$ in the domain $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{15}{2}\}$ such that $f(x) = y$.
Let $y = f(x)$:
$$ y = \frac{x+10}{2x+15} $$
Solve for $x$ in terms of $y$:
$$ y(2x+15) = x+10 $$
$$ 2xy + 15y = x+10 $$
$$ 2xy - x = 10 - 15y $$
Factor out $x$:
$$ x(2y-1) = 10 - 15y $$
$$ x = \frac{10 - 15y}{2y-1} $$
For $x$ to be defined, the denominator $2y-1$ must not be zero. Thus, $2y-1 \neq 0$, which implies $y \neq \frac{1}{2}$.
This means that the range of $f$ is $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{\frac{1}{2}\}$.
The given codomain of $f$ is $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{1}{2}\}$.
We observe that $\frac{1}{2}$ is an element of the codomain $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{-\frac{1}{2}\}$. However, from our derivation of $x$, we found that $y$ cannot be $\frac{1}{2}$. This means there is no $x$ in the domain such that $f(x) = \frac{1}{2}$.
Since there exists an element in the codomain (namely $\frac{1}{2}$) that is not in the range of $f$, the function $f$ is not onto.
Conclusion: The function $f$ is one-one but not onto.
Correct Answer: C