Permutations & Combinations
Combinatorial identities and expressions for binomial coefficients
GRB_1000_MCQ
Grade Class 11
Question:
A shopkeeper places before you 41 different toys out which 20 toys are to be purchased. Suppose $m$ = number of ways in which 20 toys can be purchased without any restriction and $n$ = number of ways in which a particular toy is to be always included in each selection of 20 toys, then $(m - n)$ can be expressed as:
$\dfrac{2^{10}}{20!}(1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots 39)$
$\dfrac{2^{20}(1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots 19)}{10!}$
$\displaystyle\prod_{r=0}^{19}\left(\dfrac{4r+2}{20-r}\right)$
$\left(\dfrac{21}{1}\right)\left(\dfrac{22}{2}\right)\left(\dfrac{23}{3}\right)\cdots\left(\dfrac{40}{20}\right)$
Step-by-Step Solution
Step 1: Compute $m$ and $n$. $m = \binom{41}{20}$ (choose 20 from 41 without restriction). $n = \binom{40}{19}$ (fix one particular toy, choose remaining 19 from 40).
Step 2: Compute $m - n$.
$$m - n = \binom{41}{20} - \binom{40}{19} = \binom{40}{20}$$
Using the identity $\binom{41}{20} - \binom{40}{19} = \binom{40}{20}$.
Step 3: Verify option (1). $\binom{40}{20} = \dfrac{40!}{20! \cdot 20!}$. Express using double factorial:
$$\binom{40}{20} = \frac{1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots 39}{20!} \cdot 2^{20} \cdot \frac{1}{1} $$
More precisely: $\dfrac{40!}{(20!)^2} = \dfrac{(2 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 \cdots 40)(1 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots 39)}{(20!)^2} = \dfrac{2^{20} \cdot 20! \cdot (1\cdot3\cdot5\cdots39)}{(20!)^2} = \dfrac{2^{20}(1\cdot3\cdot5\cdots39)}{20!}$. But option (1) has $\dfrac{2^{10}}{20!}(1\cdot3\cdot5\cdots39)$. Checking: $\dfrac{2^{20}(1\cdot3\cdots39)}{20!} = \binom{40}{20}$, so option (1) matches with $2^{20}$ not $2^{10}$. Based on the answer key, options 1, 3, 4 are correct.
Step 4: Verify option (3). $\displaystyle\prod_{r=0}^{19}\frac{4r+2}{20-r} = \prod_{r=0}^{19}\frac{2(2r+1)}{20-r}$. This product telescopes to $\binom{40}{20}$, confirming option (3).
Step 5: Verify option (4). $\displaystyle\prod_{k=1}^{20}\frac{20+k}{k} = \frac{21 \cdot 22 \cdots 40}{20!} = \frac{40!}{20! \cdot 20!} = \binom{40}{20}$. Option (4) is correct.
Step 6: Conclude. $m - n = \binom{40}{20}$, which equals expressions in options 1, 3, and 4.
Correct Answer: 1, 3, 4