For \( x \in (0,0) \), let \( I_3 = \int_0^1 e^{-x^3} dx \), \( I_2 = \int_0^1 e^{-x^2} \cos^2 x \, dx \), \( I_1 = \int_0^1 e^{-x} \cos^2 x \, dx \). Then which of the following is true?(1) \(I_3 > I_2 > I_1\) (2) \(I_1 > I_2 > I_3\) (3) \(I_3 > I_2 > I_1\) (4) \(I_2 > I_1 > I_3\)
Given \(\int_a^b f(x) \, dx = \int_b^a f(x) \, dx\) and \(f'(x) \geq 0\) at any \(x \in (a,b)\), with \(f(x)\) being continuous and differentiable in \((a,b)\). If \(g(x) = \int_0^x f(t) \, dt\), then \(\int_a^b f(x)g(x) \, dx \geq 0\) implies